TOP EXAM 8011 VOUCHER | VALID VALID 8011 TEST QUESTIONS: CREDIT AND COUNTERPARTY MANAGER (CCRM) CERTIFICATE EXAM

Top Exam 8011 Voucher | Valid Valid 8011 Test Questions: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam

Top Exam 8011 Voucher | Valid Valid 8011 Test Questions: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam

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PRMIA 8011 Certification Exam is a specialized exam designed to test the knowledge and skills of professionals in the credit and counterparty management field. Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam certification is offered by the Professional Risk Managers’ International Association (PRMIA), a leading professional association for risk management professionals worldwide. The PRMIA 8011 Exam is designed for professionals who are involved in credit risk management, counterparty risk management, and financial analysis. Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam certification is widely recognized in the industry and is a valuable asset for professionals who want to advance their careers in the field of risk management.

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following risks and reasons justify the use of scenario analysis in operational risk modeling:
I). Risks for which no internal loss data is available
II). Risks that are foreseeable but have no precedent, internally or externally
III). Risks for which objective assessments can be made by experts
IV). Risks that are known to exist, but for which no reliable external or internal losses can be analyzed
V). Reducing the complexity of having to fit statistical models to internal and external loss data
VI). Managing the capital estimation process as to produce estimates in line with management's desired capital buffers.

  • A. V
  • B. I, II, III and IV
  • C. All of the above
  • D. I, II and III

Answer: B

Explanation:
All the reasons and risks presented above are valid reasons for using scenario analysis, except V and VI - ie, the need to reduce the complexity of calculations is not a valid reason for using scenarioanalysis. Similarly, making operational risk capital estimates match management's desired capital allocation targets is also not a valid reason. Capital calculations are intended to provide adequate capital for managing the risk from operations, regardless of what management may desire them to be.


NEW QUESTION # 18
A Bank Holding Company (BHC) is invested in an investment bank and a retail bank. The BHC defaults for certain if either the investment bank or the retail bank defaults. However, the BHC can also default on its own without either the investment bank or the retail bank defaulting. The investment bank and the retail bank's defaults are independent of each other, with a probability of default of 0.05 each. The BHC's probability of default is 0.11.
What is the probability of default of both the BHC and the investment bank? What is the probability of the BHC's default provided both the investment bank and the retail bank survive?

  • A. 0.08 and 0.0475
  • B. 0.05 and 0.0125
  • C. 0.0475 and 0.10
  • D. 0.11 and 0

Answer: B

Explanation:
Since the BHC always fails when the investment bank fails, the joint probability of default of the two is merely the probability of the investment bank failing, ie 0.05.
The probability of just the BHC failing, given that both the investment bank and the retail bank have survived will be equal to 0.11 - (0.05+0.05-0.05*0.05) = 0.0125. (The easiest way to understand this would be to consider a venn diagram, where the area under the largest circle is 0.11, and there are two intersecting circles inside this larger circle, each with an area of 0.05 and their intersection accounting for 0.05*0.05. We need to calculate the area outside of the two smaller circles, but within the larger circle representing the BHC).
Refer diagram below, please excuse the awful colors.
A diagram of a bank Description automatically generated


NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following statements is true in relation to collateral management?
I. A collateral management system need not consider the failure by counterparties to returncollateral when due II. The extent to which counterparties may have rehypothecated collateral is not a consideration for a collateral management system III. Cash is an acceptable substitute for any type of collateral required to be posted IV. Haircuts do not apply to treasury issued instruments posted as collateral

  • A. II and III
  • B. None of the statements is true
  • C. I, II and III
  • D. I, II, III and IV

Answer: B

Explanation:
Strong management of collateral, both receivable and payable, is emerging as an area requiring significant investment by financial institutions and asset managers in IT infrastructures and business processes. A bank needs to make collateral calls daily, based upon the P&L of the previous day, and likewise receives collateral calls from its counterparties. Just like cash, a bank needs to make sure that it does not run out of collateral to post when a call is received. Interestingly, based upon the agreements between banks and their mutual understanding, only certain types of instruments often qualify as valid collateral - and in such cases even cash is not acceptable if the right type of bond or other agreed security is not available to post. The operational challenges of managing collateral increase manifold due to 'rehypothecation', ie when collateral received from one counterparty gets posted out as collateral where it is due. In such cases, the bank should have the mechanisms to receive the right assets back in a timely way in case rehypothecated assets are to be returned.
The systems should be able to deal with delays, failures without impacting the ability of the bank to post collateral as needed. All of this requires major investments in IT and processes.
Statement I is not true as a bank is bound to post collateral to third parties when needed regardless of the failure of its counterparties to post collateral to it when owed. In the markets, failures by counterparties can and do happen, and a collateral management system needs to account for and keep a buffer for the fact that some collateral when due will not be received.
Statement II is not true as rehypothecation by counterparties of collateral posted increases the chances of the collateral not being received in time. The system should consider the need for liquidity to generate assets that can be posted as collateral when others have failed to return the collateral in a timely way.
Statement III is not correct as cash may not be acceptable to counterparties as collateral. From a practical point of view, they may not have the infrastructure to receive and account for cash as collateral. A Swiss bank, for example, may have an 'account' to receive US t-bills as collateral but may not even have a US dollar account to receive cash. Even if it did, the volumes of transactions going back and forth may make tracking and reconciliations impossible. Thus a bank should always make sure that it has the right type of collateral available to post.
Statement IV is incorrect as well, as treasury issued instruments are also subject to haircuts. Their value also fluctuates in response to changes in yields, and therefore they are subject to haircuts as well.
Thus none of the statements are correct and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following represent the parameters that define a VaR estimate?

  • A. confidence level, the holding period and expected volatility
  • B. confidence level and the underlying stochastic process
  • C. trading position and distribution assumption
  • D. confidence level and the holding period

Answer: D

Explanation:
VaR is specified by just two parameters - the holding period, and the confidence level. We speak of, for example, a 10-day VaR at the 95% confidence level. No other parameters are required.Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer and the others are incorrect.


NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following statements are true:
I. Credit VaR often assumes a one year time horizon, as opposed to a shorter time horizon for market risk as credit activities generally span a longer time period.
II. Credit losses in the banking book should be assessed on the basis of mark-to-market mode as opposed to the default-only mode.
III. The confidence level used in the calculation of credit capital is high when the objective is to maintain a high credit rating for the institution.
IV. Credit capital calculations for securities with liquid markets and held for proprietary positions should be based on marking positions to market.

  • A. I and III
  • B. II and III
  • C. I, III and IV
  • D. I and II

Answer: C

Explanation:
Statement I is correct as credit VaR calculations often use a one year time horizon. This is primarily because the cycle in respect of credit related activities, such as loan loss reviews, accounting cycles for borrowers etc last a year.
Statement II is false. There are two ways in which loss assessments in respect of credit risk can be made:
default mode, where losses are considered only in respect of default, and no losses are recognized in respect of the deterioration of the creditworthiness of the borrower (which is often expressed through a credit rating transition matrix); and the mark-to-market mode, where losses due to both defaults and credit quality are considered. The default mode is used for the loan book where the institution has lent moneys and generally intends to hold the loan on its books till maturity. The mark to market mode is used for traded securities which are not held to maturity, or are held only for trading.
Statement III is correct. The confidence interval, or the quintile of losses used for maintaining credit ratings tends to be very high as the possibility of the institution's default needs to be remote.
Statement IV is correct too, for the reasons explained earlier.


NEW QUESTION # 22
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